1. A stone weighs 400 N in air and when immersed in water it weighs 225 N. If the specific weight of water is 9810 N/m^{3}, the relative density of the stone will be nearly
(a) 5.9
(b) 4.7
(c) 3.5
(d) 2.3

Ans: d
2. A flat plate 0.1 m^{2 }area is pulled at 30 cm/s relative to another plate located at a distance of 0.01 cm from it, the fluid separating them being water with viscosity of 0.001 Ns/m^{2}. The power required to maintain velocity will be
(a) 0.05 W
(b) 0.07 W
(c) 0.09 W
(d) 0.11 W

Ans: c
3. When the pressure of liquid is increased from 3 MN/m^{2 }to 6 MN/m^{2}, its volume is decreased by 0.1%. The bulk modulus of elasticity of the liquid will be
(a) 3\times { 10 }^{ 12 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }
(b) 3\times { 10 }^{ 9 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }
(c) 3\times { 10 }^{ 8 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }
(d) 3\times { 10 }^{ 4 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }

Ans: b
4. A curve that is everywhere tangent to the instantaneous local velocity vector, is
(a) Streak line
(b) Path line
(c) Normal line
(d) Streamline

Ans: d
5. A 120 mm diameter jet of water is discharging from a nozzle into the air at a velocity of 40 m/s. The power in the jet with respect to a datum at the jet will be
(a) 380 kW
(b) 360 kW
(c) 340 kW
(d) 320 kW

Ans: b
6. Which of the following applications regarding NavierStokes equations are correct?
1. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates.
2. Laminar unidirectional flow between parallel plates having no relative motion.
3. Laminar flow in circuit pipes.
4. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: All options are correct.
7. A crude oil having a specific gravity of 0.9 flows through a pipe of diameter 0.15 m at the rate of 8 lps. If the value of \mu is 0.3 Ns/m^{2}, the Reynolds number will be nearly
(a) 295
(b) 235
(c) 205
(d) 165

Ans: c
8. Two pipes of lengths 2500 m each and diameters 80 cm and 60 cm respectively, are connected in parallel. The coefficient of friction for each pipe is 0.006 and the total flow is 250 litres/s. The rates of flow in the pipes are nearly
(a) 0.17 m^{3}/s and 0.1 m^{3}/s
(b) 0.23 m^{3}/s and 0.1 m^{3}/s
(c) 0.17 m^{3}/s and 0.4 m^{3}/s
(d) 0.23 m^{3}/s and 0.4 m^{3}/s

Ans: a
9. A fluid of mass density 1790 kg/m^{3} and viscosity 2.1 Ns/m^{2} flows at a velocity of 3 m/s in a 6 cm diameter pipe. The head loss over a length of 12 m pipe will be nearly
(a) 62.0 m
(b) 54.0 m
(c) 46.5 m
(d) 38.5 m

Ans: d
10. Which of the following characteristics regarding fluid kinematics is/are correct?
1. Streamline represents an imaginary curve in the flow field so that the tangent to the curve at
any point represents the direction of instantaneous velocity at that point.
2. Path lines, streamlines and streak lines are identical in steady flow.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c
11. To maintain 0.08 m^{3}/s flow of petrol with a specific gravity of 0.7, through a steel pipe of 0.3 m diameter and 800 m length, with coefficient of friction of 0.0025 in the Darcy relation, the power required will be nearly
(a) 0.6 kW
(b) 1.0 kW
(c) 2.6 kW
(d) 3.0 kW

Ans: b
12. The diameter of a nozzle d for maximum transmission of power through it, is
(a) { \left[ \frac { { D }^{ 5 } }{ 8fL } \right] }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 4 } }
(b) { \left[ \frac { { D }^{ 5 } }{ 8fL } \right] }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 2 } }
(c) { \left[ \frac { { 8D }^{ 5 } }{ fL } \right] }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 4 } }
(d) { \left[ \frac { { 8D }^{ 5 } }{ fL } \right] }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 2} }
where :
D = Diameter of pipe
f = Coefficient of friction
L = Length of pipe

Ans: a
13. A pistoncylinder device with air at an initial temperature of 30^{0}C undergoes an expansion process for which pressure and volume are related as given below:
The work done by the system for n = 1.4 will be
(a) 4.8 kJ
(b) 6.8 kJ
(c) 8.4 kJ
(d) 10.6 kJ

Ans: d
14. A domestic food freezer maintains a temperature of –15^{0}C. The ambient air temperature is 30^{0}C. If heat leaks into the freezer at the continuous rate of 1.75 kJ/s, the least power necessary to pump this heat out continuously will be nearly
(a) 0.1 kW
(b) 0.2 kW
(c) 0.3 kW
(d) 0.4 kW

Ans: c
15. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated pipe at the rate of 3 kg/s. There is a 10% pressure drop from an inlet to exit of the pipe. The values of R = 0.287 kJ/kg.K and T_{0 }= 300K. The rate of energy loss for the pressure drop due to friction, will be nearly
(a) 34 kW
(b) 30 kW
(c) 26 kW
(d) 22 kW

Ans: c
16. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 800^{0}C and a sink temperature of 30^{0}C. The least rate of heat rejection per kW net output of engine will be nearly
(a) 0.2 kW
(b) 0.4 kW
(c) 0.6 kW
(d) 0.8 kW

Ans: b
17. A fictitious pressure that, if it acted on the piston during the entire power stroke, would produce the same amount of net work as that produced during the actual cycle is called
(a) Quasi equivalent pressure
(b) Mean equivalent pressure
(c) Mean effective pressure
(d) Quasi static pressure

Ans: c
18. An ideal cycle based on the concept of combination of two heat transfer processes, one at constant volume and the other at constant pressure, is called
(a) Otto cycle
(b) Dual cycle
(c) Diesel cycle
(d) Carnot cycle

Ans: b
19. The ideal thermodynamic cycle for the development of gasturbine engine is
(a) Otto
(b) Stirling
(c) Ericsson
(d) Brayton

Ans: d
20. If the pressure at exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature desired in the process heater, such a turbine is called
(a) Condensing turbine
(b) Extraction turbine
(c) Pass out turbine
(d) Back pressure turbine

Ans: b
21. The purpose of providing fins on heat transfer surface is to increase
(a) Temperature gradient so as to enhance heat transfer by convection
(b) Effective surface area to promote rate of heat transfer by convection
(c) Turbulence in flow for enhancing heat transfer by convection
(d) Pressure drop of the fluid

Ans: b
22. For fully developed laminar pipe flow, the average velocity is
(a) Onehalf of the maximum velocity
(b) Onethird of the maximum velocity
(c) Onefourth of the maximum velocity
(d) Twothird of the maximum velocity

Ans: a
23. The overall heat transfer coefficient due to convection and radiation for a steam maintained at 200^{0}C running in a large room at 30^{0}C is 17.95 W/m^{2}K. If the emissivity of the pipe surface is 0.8; the value of \sigma =5.67\times { 10 }^{ 8 }W/{ m }^{ 2 }{ K }^{ 4 }; the heat transfer coefficient due to radiation will be nearly
(a) 17 W/m^{2}K
(b) 14 W/m^{2}K
(c) 11 W/m^{2}K
(d) 8 W/m^{2}K

Ans: c
24. Large heat transfer coefficients for vapour condensation can be achieved by promoting
(a) Film condensation
(b) Dropwise condensation
(c) Cloud condensation
(d) Dew condensation

Ans: b
25. Which one of the following valves is provided for starting the engine manually, during cold weather conditions?
(a) Starting jet valve
(b) Compensating jet valve
(c) Choke valve
(d) Auxiliary air valve

Ans: c
26. A 4cylinder, 4stroke single acting petrol engine consumes 6 kg of fuel per minute at 800 rpm when the airfuel ratio of the mixture supplied is 9 : 1. The temperature is 650 K and pressure is 12.5 bar at the end of compression stroke. Take R = 300 Nm/kg.K, diameter of cylinder as 8 cm, stroke of cylinder as 10 cm. The compression ratio will be nearly
(a) 6.2
(b) 5.7
(c) 5.2
(d) 4.6

Ans: No option is correct
27. Ice is formed at 0^{0}C from water at 20^{0}C. The temperature of the brine is –8^{0}C. The refrigeration cycle used is perfect reversed Carnot cycle. Latent heat of ice = 335 kJ/kg, and c_{pw}= 4.18. The ice formed per kWh will be nearly
(a) 81.4 kg
(b) 76.4 kg
(c) 71.8 kg
(d) 68.8 kg

Ans: a
28. A Freon 12 simple saturation cycle operates at temperatures of 35^{0}C and –15^{0}C for the condenser and evaporator. If the refrigeration effect produced by the cycle is 111.5 kJ/kg and the work required by the compressor is 27.2 kJ/kg, the value of COP will be nearly
(a) 4.1
(b) 3.6
(c) 3.1
(d) 2.6

Ans: a
29. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5^{0}C while the surroundings are at 35^{0}C. The heat leakage from the surroundings into the cold storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual COP of the refrigeration plant used is onethird of an ideal plant working between the same temperatures. The power required to drive the plant will be
(a) 10 kW
(b) 11 kW
(c) 12 kW
(d) 13 kW

Ans: d
30. A single acting twostage air compressor deals with 4 m^{3}/min of air at 1.013 bar and 15^{0}C with a speed of 250 rpm. The delivery pressure is 80 bar. If the inter cooling is complete, the intermittent pressure after first stage will be
(a) 9 bar
(b) 8 bar
(c) 7 bar
(d) 6 bar

Ans: a
31. The ideal gasrefrigeration cycle is the same as the
(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Reversed Brayton cycle
(c) Vapour compression refrigeration cycle
(d) Vapour absorption refrigeration cycle

Ans: b
32. If the atmospheric conditions are 20^{0}C, 1.013 bar and specific humidity of 0.0095 kg/kg of dry air, the partial pressure of vapour will be nearly
(a) 0.076 bar
(b) 0.056 bar
(c) 0.036 bar
(d) 0.016 bar

Ans: d
33. In airconditioning systems air may be cooled and dehumidified by
1. Spraying chilled water to air in the form of fine mist.
2. Circulating chilled water or brine in a tube placed across the air flow.
3. Placing the evaporator coil across the air flow.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d
34. A duct of rectangular crosssection 600mm\times 400mm carries 90 m^{3}/min of air having density of 1.2 kg/m^{3}. When the quantity of air in both cases is same, the equivalent diameter of a circular duct will be nearly
(a) 0.86 m
(b) 0.76 m
(c) 0.64 m
(d) 0.54 m

Ans: d
35. A room having dimensions of 5m\times 5m\times 3m contains air at 25^{0}C and 100 kPa at a relative humidity of 75%. The corresponding value of ps is 3.169 kPa. The partial pressure of dry air will be nearly
(a) 106 kPa
(b) 98 kPa
(c) 86 kPa
(d) 78 kPa

Ans: b
36. A measure of feeling warmth or coolness by the human body in response to the air temperature, moisture content and air motion is called
(a) Dry bulb temperature
(b) Effective temperature
(c) Wet bulb temperature
(d) Dew point temperature

Ans: b
37. While designing a Pelton wheel, the velocity of wheel ‘u’ is
(a) { K }_{ u }\sqrt { gH }
(b) { 2K }_{ u }\sqrt { gH }
(c) { K }_{ u }\sqrt { 2gH }
(d) { 2K }_{ u }\sqrt { 2gH }
where: K_{u}= Speed ratio, H = Net head on turbine, g = Gravity

Ans: c
38. The turbines of the same shape will have the same
(a) Thomas number
(b) Reynolds number
(c) Specific speed
(d) Rotational speed

Ans: c
39. A centrifugal pump is required to lift 0.0125 m^{3}/s of water from a well with depth 30 m. If rating of the pump motor is 5 kW, and the density of water is 1000 kg/m^{3}, the efficiency of the pump will be nearly
(a) 82%
(b) 74%
(c) 66%
(d) 58%

Ans: b
40. An inward flow reaction turbine has an external diameter of 1 m and its breadth at inlet is 250 mm. If the velocity of flow at inlet is 2 m/s and 10% of the area of flow is blocked by blade thickness, the weight of water passing through the turbine will be nearly
(a) 10 kN/s
(b) 14 kN/s
(c) 18 kN/s
(d) 22 kN/s

Ans: b
41. The process of abstracting steam at a certain section of the turbine and subsequently using it for heating feed water supplied to the boiler is called
(a) Reheating
(b) Regeneration
(c) Bleeding
(d) Binary vapour cycle

Ans: c
42. When blade speed ratio is zero, no work is done because the distance travelled by the blade is zero even if the torque on the blade
(a) is minimum
(b) is zero
(c) is maximum
(d) remains the same

Ans: c
43. In an axial flow turbine, the utilization factor has an absolute maximum value of unity, for any degree of reaction if the value of nozzle angle \alpha is
(a) 270^{0}
(b) 180^{0}
(c) 90^{0}
(d) 0^{0}

Ans: d
44. Which of the following are essential for a good combustion chamber of turbojet engine?
1. It should allow complete combustion of fuel.
2. It should maintain sufficiently high temperature in the zone of combustion in addition to proper atomization of fuel thus leading to continuous combustion.
3. It should not have high rate of combustion.
4. The pressure drop should be as small as possible.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: d
45. If m_{f} is the mass of fuel supplied per kg of air in one second, then the mass of gases leaving the nozzle of turbojet will be
(a) { (1{ m }_{ f }) } kg / s
(b) \frac { 1 }{ (1+{ m }_{ f }) } kg / s
(c) { (1+{ m }_{ f }) } kg / s
(d) \frac { 1 }{ (1{ m }_{ f }) } kg / s

Ans: c
46. Which one of the following may be considered as a single cylinder twostroke reciprocating engine running at 2400 rpm to 2700 rpm for rapid chain of impulses?
(a) Turbo jet
(b) Pulse jet
(c) Ram jet
(d) Athodyd jet

Ans: b
47. In jet propulsion of ships, when the inlet orifices are at right angles to the direction of motion of the ships, the efficiency of propulsion \eta is
(a) \frac { 2{ u }^{ 2 } }{ V+u }
(b) \frac { 2{ Vu } }{ { (V+u) }^{ 2 } }
(c) \frac { 2{ u } }{ { (V+u) }^{ 2 } }
(d) \frac { 2{ Vu } }{ V+2u }
where:
V = Absolute velocity of the issuing jet
u = Velocity of the moving ship

Ans: b
48. 0.8 kg of air flows through a compressor under steady state conditions. The properties of air at entry are : pressure 1 bar, velocity 10 m/s, specific volume 0.95 m^{3}/kg and internal energy 30 kJ/kg. The corresponding values at exit are 8 bar, 6 m/s, 0.2 m^{3}/kg and 124 kJ/kg. Neglecting change in potential energy, the power input will be
(a) 117 kW
(b) 127 kW
(c) 137 kW
(d) 147 kW

Ans: b
49. In a power plant, the efficiency of the electric generator, turbine, boiler, cycle and the overall plant are 0.97, 0.95, 0.92, 0.42 and 0.33 respectively. In the generated electricity, the auxiliaries will consume nearly
(a) 7.3%
(b) 6.5%
(c) 5.7%
(d) 4.9%

Ans: a
50. The higher power requirements for compression in a steam power plant working on Carnot vapour cycle
(a) Increases the plant efficiency as well as work ratio
(b) Reduces the plant efficiency as well as work ratio
(c) Does not affect the plant efficiency as well as work ratio
(d) Increases the plant efficiency and reduces work ratio

Ans: d
51. For the same compression ratio, the Brayton cycle efficiency is
(a) Same as the Diesel cycle efficiency
(b) Equal to the Otto cycle efficiency
(c) More than the Diesel cycle efficiency
(d) Less than the Otto cycle efficiency

Ans: b
52. An economizer in a steam generator performs the function of preheating the
(a) Combustion air
(b) Feed water
(c) Input fuel
(d) Combustion air as well as input fuel

Ans: b
53. Air enters the compressor of a gas turbine plant operating on Brayton cycle at 1 bar and 27^{0}C. The pressure ratio in the cycle is 6. If the relation between the turbine work W_{T} and compressor work W_{C} is W_{T} = 3W_{C} and { \eta } = 1.4, the cycle efficiency will be nearly
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%

Ans: a
54. A fluidized bed combustion system having an output of 35 MW at 80% efficiency when using a coal of heating valve 26 MJ/kg with a sulphur content of 3.6% requires a particular limestone to be fed to it at a calciumsulphur molar ratio of 3.0 so as to limit emissions of SO_{2 }adequately. The limestone used contains 85% CaCO_{3}. The required flow rate of limestone will be
(a) 2405 kg/h
(b) 2805 kg/h
(c) 3205 kg/h
(d) 3605 kg/h

Ans: a
55. In Orsat apparatus, when the percentage of carbon dioxide, oxygen and carbon monoxide are known, the remaining gas is assumed to be
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Air

Ans: c
56. The partial vacuum created by the fan in the furnace and flues, draws the products of the combustion from the main flue and allows them to pass up to the chimney. Such a draught is called
(a) Balanced draught
(b) Forced draught
(c) Induced draught
(d) Artificial draught

Ans: c
57. Which of the following are applied (used) ways of compounding steam turbines?
1. Pressure compounding
2. Temperature compounding
3. Velocity compounding
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: d
58. A steam ejector which removes air and other noncondensable gases from the condenser is known as
(a) Wet air pump
(b) Dry air pump
(c) Centrifugal pump
(d) Circulating pump

Ans: a
59. In a heat exchanger, 50 kg of water is heated per minute from 50^{0}C to 110^{0}C by hot gases which enter the heat exchanger at 250^{0}C. The value of C_{p} for water is 4.186 kJ/kg.K and for air is 1 kJ/kg.K. If the flow rate of gases is 100 kg/min, the net change of enthalpy of air will be nearly
(a) 17.6 MJ/min
(b) 15.0 MJ/min
(c) 12.6 MJ/min
(d) 10.0 MJ/min

Ans: c
60. The phenomenon that enables cooling towers to cool water to a temperature below the dry bulb temperature of air is termed as
(a) Chemical dehumidification
(b) Adiabatic evaporative cooling
(c) Cooling and dehumidification
(d) Sensible cooling

Ans: b
61. The angle through which the Earth must turn to bring the meridian of a point directly in line with the Sun’s rays is called
(a) Altitude angle
(b) Hour angle
(c) Solar azimuth angle
(d) Zenith angle

Ans: b
62. In which type of collector is solar radiation focused into the absorber from the top, rather than from the bottom?
(a) Fresnel lens
(b) Paraboloidal
(c) Concentrating
(d) Compound parabolic

Ans: a
63. A flat plate collector is 150 cm wide and 180 cm high and is oriented such that it is perpendicular to the sun rays. Its active area is 90% of the panel size. If it is in a location that receives solar insolation of 1000 W/m^{2 }peak, the peak power delivered to the area of the collector will be
(a) 1.23 kW
(b) 2.43 kW
(c) 4.46 kW
(d) 6.26 kW

Ans: b
64. A surface having high absorptance for shortwave radiation (less than 2.5 \mu m) and a low emittance of longwave radiation (more than 2.5 \mu m), is called
(a) Absorber
(b) Emitter
(c) Selective
(d) Black

Ans: c
65. In a solar tower power system, each mirror is mounted on a system called
(a) Regenerator
(b) Linear Fresnel
(c) Dish
(d) Heliostat

Ans: d
66. The ratio of PV cell’s actual maximum power output to its theoretical power output is called
(a) Quantum factor
(b) Fill factor
(c) Quantum efficiency
(d) PV factor

Ans: b
67. With respect to the wind turbine blades, TSR means
(a) Tip Swift Ratio
(b) Tip Sharp Ratio
(c) Tip Speed Ratio
(d) Tip Swing Ratio

Ans: c
68. For a wind turbine 10 m long running at 20 rpm in 12.9 kmph wind, the TSR will be nearly
(a) 3.6
(b) 5.8
(c) 7.6
(d) 9.8

Ans: b
69. Which one of the following is an enclosure or housing for the generator, gear box and any other parts of the wind turbine that are on the top of the tower?
(a) Turbine blade
(b) Nacelle
(c) Turbine head
(d) Gear box

Ans: b
70. The force required for producing tides in the ocean is
(a) 70% due to Moon and 30% due to Sun
(b) 30% due to Moon and 70% due to Sun
(c) 45% due to Moon and 55% due to Sun
(d) 55% due to Moon and 45% due to Sun

Ans: a
71. Which of the following are related to the Proton Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell (PEMFC)?
1. Polymer electrolyte
2. Hydrogen fuel and oxygen
3. Pure water and small amount of electricity
4. Nitrogen gas
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: c
72. Which of the following are the essential functions of fuel cells?
1. The charging (or electrolyser) function in which the chemical AB is decomposed to A and B.
2. The storage function in which A and B are held apart.
3. The charge function in which A and B are charged with the simultaneous generation of electricity.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c
73. The position of centroid can be determined by inspection, if an area has
(a) Single axis of symmetry
(b) Two axes of symmetry
(c) An irregular shape
(d) Centre axes of symmetry

Ans: b
74. Which of the following statements of D’Alembert’s principle are correct?
1. The net external force F actually acting on the body and the inertia force F1 together keep the body in a state of fictitious equilibrium.
2. The equation of motion may be written as F + (–ma) = 0 and the fictitious force (–ma) is called an inertia force.
3. It tends to give solution of a static problem an appearance akin to that of a dynamic problem.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b
75. The linear relationship between stress and strain for a bar in simple tension or compression is expressed with standard notations by the equation
(a) \sigma =E\varepsilon
(b) \sigma =E\nu
(c) \sigma =G\nu
(d) \sigma =G\varepsilon

Ans: a
76. A punch is used for making holes in steel plates with thickness 8 mm. If the punch diameter is 20 mm and force required for creating a hole is 110 kN, the average shear stress in the plate will be nearly
(a) 139 MPa
(b) 219 MPa
(c) 336 MPa
(d) 416 MPa

Ans: b
77. A rod of length 2 m and diameter 50 mm is elongated by 5 mm when an axial force of 400 kN is applied. The modulus of elasticity of the material of the rod will be nearly
(a) 66 GPa
(b) 72 GPa
(c) 82 GPa
(d) 96 GPa

Ans: c
78. A beam of span 3 m and width 90 mm is loaded as shown in the figure. If the allowable bending stress is 12 MPa, the minimum depth required for the beam will be
(a) 218 mm
(b) 246 mm
(c) 318 mm
(d) 346 mm

Ans: b
79. A vertical hollow aluminium tube 2.5 m high fixed at the lower end, must support a lateral load of 12 kN at its upper end. If the wall thickness is \frac { 1 }{ 8 } th of the outer diameter and the allowable bending stress is 50 MPa, the inner diameter will be nearly
(a) 186 mm
(b) 176 mm
(c) 166 mm
(d) 156 mm

Ans: d
80. A wooden beam AB supporting two concentrated loads P has a rectangular crosssection of width = 100 mm and height = 150 mm. The distance from each end of the beam to the nearest load is 0.5 m. If the allowable stress in bending is 11 MPa and the beam weight is negligible, the maximum permissible load will be nearly
(a) 5.8 kN
(b) 6.6 kN
(c) 7.4 kN
(d) 8.2 kN

Ans: d
81. Which of the following statements regarding thin and thick cylinders, subjected to internal pressure only, is/are correct?
1. A cylinder is considered thin when the ratio of its inner diameter to the wall thickness is less than 15.
2. In thick cylinders, tangential stress has highest magnitude at the inner surface of the cylinder and gradually decreases towards the outer surface.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: b
82. A cylindrical storage tank has an inner diameter of 600 mm and a wall thickness of 18 mm. The transverse and longitudinal strains induced are 255\times { 10 }^{ 6 } mm/mm and 60\times { 10 }^{ 6 } mm/mm, and if G is 77 GPa, the gauge pressure inside the tank will be
(a) 2.4 MPa
(b) 2.8 MPa
(c) 3.2 MPa
(d) 3.6 MPa

Ans: d
83. A compressed air spherical tank having an inner diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 7 mm is formed by welding. If the allowable shear stress is 40 MPa, the maximum permissible air pressure in the tank will be nearly
(a) 3 MPa
(b) 5 MPa
(c) 7 MPa
(d) 9 MPa

Ans: b
84. A solid bar of circular crosssection having a diameter of 40 mm and length of 1.3 m is subjected to torque of 340 N.m. If the shear modulus of elasticity is 80 GPa, the angle of twist between the ends will be
(a) 1.26^{0}
(b) 1.32^{0}
(c) 1.38^{0}
(d) 1.44^{0}

Ans: a
85. Which one of the following statements regarding screw dislocation is correct?
(a) It lies parallel to its Burgers vector
(b) It moves in the direction parallel to its Burgers vector
(c) It initially requires very less force to move
(d) It moves very fast as compared to edge dislocation

Ans: a
86. The percentage of pearlite in a slowly cooled melt of 0.5% of carbon steel is
(a) 48.5%
(b) 52.5%
(c) 58.5%
(d) 62.5%

Ans: d
87. In the study of phase diagrams, the rule which helps to calculate the relative proportions of liquid and solid material present in the mixture at any given temperature is known as
(a) HumeRothery rule
(b) Lever rule
(c) Gibbs phase rule
(d) Empirical rule

Ans: b
88. The phenomenon that artificially increases the dielectric constant of plastics containing fillers is known as
(a) Gamma polarization
(b) Interfacial polarization
(c) Postforming drawing
(d) Reinforcement drawing

Ans: b
89. The addition of alloying element nickel to cast iron will primarily improve
(a) Wear resistance
(b) Toughness
(c) Carbide formation
(d) Machinability

Ans: b
90. A unidirectional fibreepoxy composite contains 65% by volume fibre and 35% epoxy resin. If the relative density of the fibre is 1.48 and of the resin is 1.2, the percentage weight of fibre will be nearly
(a) 70%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 85%

Ans: a
91. Which of the following are the advantages of Nanocomposite materials?
1. Decreased thermal expansion coefficients.
2. Higher residual stress
3. Reduced gas permeability
4. Increased solvent resistance
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: b
92. A rod of copper originally 305 mm long is pulled in tension with a stress of 276 MPa. If the modulus of elasticity is 110 GPa and the deformation is entirely elastic, the resultant elongation will be nearly
(a) 1.0 mm
(b) 0.8 mm
(c) 0.6 mm
(d) 0.4 mm

Ans: b
93. A 1.25 cm diameter steel bar is subjected to a load of 2500 kg. The stress induced in the bar will be
(a) 200 MPa
(b) 210 MPa
(c) 220 MPa
(d) 230 MPa

Ans: a
94. The maximum energy which can be stored in a body up to the elastic limit is called
(a) Proof resilience
(b) Modulus of resilience
(c) Impact toughness
(d) Endurance strength

Ans: a
95. A cast iron bed plate for a pump has a crack length of 100 \mu m. If the Young’s modulus of cast iron is 210 GN/m^{2} and the specific surface energy is 10 J/m^{2}, the fracture strength required will be nearly
(a) 1.0\times { 10 }^{ 8 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }
(b) 1.2\times { 10 }^{ 8 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }
(c) 1.4\times { 10 }^{ 8 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }
(d) 1.6\times { 10 }^{ 8 }N/{ m }^{ 2 }

Ans: b
96. A 13 mm diameter tensile specimen has 50 mm gauge length. If the load corresponding to the 0.2% offset is 6800 kg, the yield stress will be nearly
(a) 31 kg/mm^{2}
(b) 43 kg/mm^{2}
(c) 51 kg/mm^{2}
(d) 63 kg/mm^{2}

Ans: c
97. The magnitude of the velocity of any point on the kinematic link relative to the other point on the same kinematic link is the product of
(a) A square root of an angular velocity of the link and the distance between the two points under consideration
(b) An angular velocity of the link and the square of distance between the two points under consideration
(c) A square of an angular velocity of the link and the distance between the two points under consideration
(d) An angular velocity of the link and the distance between the two points under consideration

Ans: d
98. In a mechanism, the number of Instantaneous centres (Icentres) N is
(a) \frac { n(n1) }{ 2 }
(b) \frac { n(2n1) }{ 2 }
(c) \frac { 2n(n1) }{ 3 }
(d) \frac { n(2n1) }{ 3 }

Ans: a
99. In cycloidal motion of cam follower, the maximum acceleration of follower motion { f }_{ max } at \theta =\frac { \varphi }{ 4 }
(a) \frac { h\pi { \omega }^{ 2 } }{ 2{ \varphi }^{ 2 } }
(b) \frac { 3h\pi { \omega }^{ 2 } }{ 2{ \varphi }^{ 2 } }
(c) \frac { 2h\pi { \omega }^{ 2 } }{{ \varphi }^{ 2 } }
(d) \frac { 3h\pi { \omega }^{ 2 } }{ { \varphi }^{ 2 } }

Ans: c
100. A shaft of span 1 m and diameter 25 mm is simply supported at the ends. It carries a 1.5 kN concentrated load at midspan. If E is 200 GPa, its fundamental frequency will be nearly
(a) 3.5 Hz
(b) 4.2 Hz
(c) 4.8 Hz
(d) 5.5 Hz

Ans: d
101. A vibrating system consists of mass of 50 kg, a spring with a stiffness of 30 kN/m and a damper. If damping is 20% of the critical value, the natural frequency of damped vibrations will be
(a) 16 rad/s
(b) 20 rad/s
(c) 24 rad/s
(d) 28 rad/s

Ans: c
102. A refrigerator unit having a mass of 35 kg is to be supported on three springs, each having spring stiffness s. The unit operates at 480 rpm. If only 10% of the shaking force is allowed to transmit to the supporting structure, the value of stiffness will be nearly
(a) 2.7 N/mm
(b) 3.2 N/mm
(c) 3.7 N/mm
(d) 4.2 N/mm

Ans: a
103. In which one of the following tooth profiles, does the pressure angle remain constant throughout the engagement of teeth?
(a) Cycloidal
(b) Involute
(c) Conjugate
(d) Epicylcoid

Ans: b
104. If the axes of the first and last wheels of a compound gear coincide, it is called
(a) Simple gear train
(b) Compound gear train
(c) Epicyclic gear train
(d) Reverted gear train

Ans: d
105. In a reciprocating engine, the force along the connecting rod F_{Q} is
(a) \frac { { F }_{ P } }{ \sqrt { { n }^{ 2 }{ sin }^{ 2 }\theta } }
(b) \frac { { F }_{ P } }{ 2\sqrt { { n }^{ 2 }{ sin }^{ 2 }\theta } }
(c) \frac { n{ F }_{ P } }{ 2\sqrt { { n }^{ 2 }{ sin }^{ 2 }\theta } }
(d) \frac { n{ F }_{ P } }{ \sqrt { { n }^{ 2 }{ sin }^{ 2 }\theta } }
where:
F_{P }= Force on piston
n=\frac { L }{ r }
\theta = Angle for crank from IDC

Ans: d
106. A mass m_{1 }attached to a shaft at radius r_{1}, rotating with angular velocity \omega rad/s, can be balanced by another single mass m_{2} which is attached to the opposite side of the shaft at radius r_{2}, in the same plane, if
(a) { m }_{ 1 }{ r }_{ 2 }={ m }_{ 2 }{ r }_{ 1 }
(b) { m }_{ 1 }{ r }_{ 1 }={ m }_{ 2 }{ r }_{ 2 }
(c) { m }_{ 1 }{ r }_{ 1 }{ \omega }_{ 1 }={ m }_{ 2 }{ r }_{ 2 }{ \omega }_{ 2 }
(d) { m }_{ 1 }{ r }_{ 2 }{ \omega }_{ 1 }={ m }_{ 2 }{ r }_{ 1 }{ \omega }_{ 2 }

Ans: b
107. For a single cylinder reciprocating engine speed is 500 rpm, stroke is 150 mm, mass of reciprocating parts is 21 kg; mass of revolving parts is 15 kg at crank radius. If twothirds of reciprocating masses and all the revolving masses are balanced, the mass at a radius of 150 mm will be
(a) 7.5 kg
(b) 10.5 kg
(c) 12.5 kg
(d) 14.5 kg

Ans: d
108. If the axes of the rolling of the ship and of the stabilizing rotor are parallel, it will result in
(a) A higher bow and lower stern
(b) A lower bow and higher stern
(c) Turning towards left
(d) No gyroscopic effect

Ans: d
109. Coaxing is a process of
(a) Improving the fatigue properties, attained by understressing and then raising the stress in small increments.
(b) Decreasing the hardness by full annealing
(c) Increasing the uniaxial tensile strength by heating above recrystallization temperature and quenching in oil media
(d) Maintaining the ductility of the material by chemical treatment

Ans: a
110. According to the distortionenergy theory, the yield strength in shear is
(a) 0.277 times the yield stress
(b) 0.377 times the maximum shear stress
(c) 0.477 times the yield strength in tension
(d) 0.577 times the yield strength in tension

Ans: d
111. For the prediction of ductile yielding, the theory of failure utilized is
(a) Maximum strain energy theory
(b) Distortion energy theory
(c) Maximum normal strain theory
(d) Mohr theory

Ans: b
112. A steel specimen is subjected to the following principal stresses: 120 MPa tensile, 60 MPa tensile and 30 MPa compressive. If the proportionality limit for the steel specimen is 250 MPa; the factor of safety as per maximum shear stress theory will be nearly
(a) 1.3
(b) 1.7
(c) 2.3
(d) 2.7

Ans: b
113. For which one of the following loading conditions is the standard endurance strength multiplied by a load factor, K_{e} = 0.9?
(a) Reversed beam bending loads
(b) Reversed axial loads with no bending
(c) Reversed axial loads with intermediate bending
(d) Reversed torsion loads

Ans: b
114. A 120 mm wide uniform plate is to be subjected to a tensile load that has a maximum value of 250 kN and a minimum value of 100 kN. The properties of the plate material are: endurance limit stress is 225 MPa, yield point stress is 300 MPa. If the factor of safety based on yield point is 1.5, the thickness of the plate will be nearly
(a) 12 mm
(b) 14 mm
(c) 16 mm
(d) 18 mm

Ans: a
115. A steel connecting rod having S_{ut} = 1000 MN/m^{2}, S_{yt} = 900 MN/m^{2} is subjected to a completely reversed axial load of 50 kN. By neglecting any column action, if the values of k_{e }= 0.85, k_{b }= 0.9, k_{a }= 0.82, k_{t} = 1.5, q = 0.6 and N = 2, the diameter of the rod will be nearly
(a) 20 mm
(b) 23 mm
(c) 26 mm
(d) 29 mm

Ans: b
116. During crushing or bearing failure of riveted joints
(a) The holes in the plates become oval shaped and joints become loose
(b) There is tearing of the plate at an edge
(c) The plates will crack in radial directions and joints fail
(d) The rivet heads will shear out by applied stress

Ans: a
117. The double riveted joint with two cover plates for boiler shell is 1.5 m in diameter subjected to steam pressure of 1 MPa. If the joint efficiency is 75%, allowable tensile stress in the plate is 83 MN/m^{2}, compressive stress is 138 MN/m^{2} and shear stress in the rivet is 55 MN/m^{2}, the diameter or rivet hole will be nearly
(a) 8 mm
(b) 22 mm
(c) 36 mm
(d) 52 mm

Ans: b
118. A bearing supports a radial load of 7000 N and a thrust load of 2100 N. The desired life of the ball bearing is 160\times { 10 }^{ 6 } revolutions at 300 rpm. If the load is uniform and steady, service factor is 1, radial factor is 0.65, thrust factor is 3.5, k = 3 and rotational factor is 1, the basic dynamic load rating of a bearing will be nearly
(a) 65 kN
(b) 75 kN
(c) 85 kN
(d) 95 kN

Ans: a
119. A solid cast iron disk, 1 m in diameter and 0.2 m thick, is used as a flywheel. It is rotating at 350 rpm. It is brought to rest in 1.5 s by means of a brake. If the mass density of cast iron is 7200 kg/m^{3}, the torque exerted by the brake will be nearly
(a) 3.5 kN m
(b) 4.35 kN m
(c) 5.3 kN m
(d) 6.3 kN m

Ans: a
120. The torque transmitting capacity of friction clutches can be increased by
(a) Use of friction material with a lower coefficient of friction
(b) Decreasing the mean radius of the friction disk
(c) Increasing the mean radius of the friction disk
(d) Decreasing the plate pressure

Ans: c
121. The time taken to face a workpiece of 80 mm diameter for the spindle speed of 90 rpm and cross feed of 0.3 mm/rev will be
(a) 4.12 min
(b) 3.24 min
(c) 2.36 min
(d) 1.48 min

Ans: d
122. A feed for the lathe operation is
(a) \frac { N }{ L\times { T }_{ m } } mm/ rev
(b) \frac { L }{ N\times { T }_{ m } } mm/ rev
(c) \frac { { T }_{ m } }{ N\times L } mm/ rev
(d) \frac { { T }_{ m }\times L }{ N } mm/ rev
Where:
T_{m} = Machining time in min,
N = Speed in rpm,
L = Length of cut in mm

Ans: b
123. The main advantages of the radial drilling machine is that
(a) It is very compatible and handy for machining
(b) It is accurate, economical, portable and least time consuming while machining
(c) Heavy workpieces can be machined in any position without moving them
(d) Small workpieces can be machined and it can be used for mass production as well

Ans: c
124. For the purpose of sampling inspection, the maximum percent defective that can be considered satisfactory as a process average is
(a) Rejectable Quality Level (RQL)
(b) Acceptable Quality Level (AQL)
(c) Average Outgoing Quality Limit (AOQL)
(d) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective (LTPD)

Ans: b
125. Hard automation is also called
(a) Selective automation
(b) Total automation
(c) Group technology
(d) Fixed position automation

Ans: d
126. The method of CNC programming which enables the programmer to describe part geometry using variables is
(a) Computer assisted part programming
(b) Computer aided drafting programming
(c) Conversational programming
(d) Parametric programming

Ans: d
127. Revolving joint of the robot is referred to as
(a) L joint
(b) O joint
(c) T joint
(d) V joint

Ans: d
128. Repairing of a machine consists of 5 steps that must be performed sequentially. Time taken to perform each of the 5 steps is found to have an exponential distribution with a mean of 5 minute and is independent of other steps. If these machines break down in Poisson fashion at an average rate of 2/hour and if there is only one repairman, the average idle time for each machine that has broken down will be.
(a) 120 minutes
(b) 110 minutes
(c) 100 minutes
(d) 90 minutes

Ans: c
129. A portion of the total float within which an activity can be delayed for start without affecting the floats of preceding activities is called
(a) Safety float
(b) Free float
(c) Independent float
(d) Interfering float

Ans: c
130. An oil engine manufacturer purchases lubricant cans at the rate of ₹. 42 per piece from a vendor. The requirement of these lubricant cans is 1800 per year. If the cost per placement of an order is ₹. 16 and inventory carrying charges per rupee per year is 20 paise, the order quantity per order will be
(a) 91 cans
(b) 83 cans
(c) 75 cans
(d) 67 cans

Ans: b
131. Consider the following data regarding the acceptance sampling process: N = 10,000, n = 89, c = 2, P = 0.01 and P_{a }= 0.9397. The average Total Inspection (ATI) will be
(a) 795
(b) 687
(c) 595
(d) 487

Ans: b
132. The NonDestructive Inspection (NDI) technique employed during inspection for castings of tubes and pipes to check the overall strength of a casting in resistance to bursting under hydraulic pressure is
(a) Radiographic inspection
(b) Magnetic particle inspection
(c) Fluorescent penetrant
(d) Pressure testing

Ans: d
133. Consider the situation where a microprocessor gives an output of an 8bit word. This is fed through an 8bit digitaltoanalogue converter to a control valve. The control valve requires 6.0 V being fully open. If the fully open state is indicated by 11111111, the output to the valve for a change of 1bit will be
(a) 0.061 V
(b) 0.042 V
(c) 0.023 V
(d) 0.014 V

Ans: c
134. Which of the following factors are to be considered while selecting a microcontroller?
1. Memory requirements
2. Processing speed required
3. Number of input/output pins
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d
135. Which of the following statements regarding interface circuit are correct?
1. Electrical buffering is needed when the peripheral operates at a different voltage or current to that on the microprocessor bus system or there are different ground references.
2. Timing control is needed when the data transfer rates of the peripheral and the microprocessor are different.
3. Changing the number of lines is needed when the codes used by the peripherals differ from those used by the microprocessor.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Ans: a
136. Alternative paths provided by vertical paths from the main rung of a ladder diagram, that is, paths in parallel, represent
(a) Logical AND operations
(b) Logical OR operations
(c) Logical NOT operations
(d) Logical NOR operations

Ans: b
137. The resolution of a encoder with 10 tracks will be nearly
(a) 0.15^{0}
(b) 0.25^{0}
(c) 0.35^{0}
(d)0.45^{0}

Ans: c
138. Which of the following features is/are relevant to variable reluctance stepper motors?
1. Smaller rotor mass; more responsive
2. Step size is small
3. More sluggish
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a
139. Which of the following statements regarding hydraulic pumps are correct?
1. The gear pump consists of two close – meshing gear wheels which rotate in opposite directions.
2. In vane pump, as the rotor rotates, the vanes follow the contours of the casing.
3. The leakage is more in vane pump compared to gear pump.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: b
140. The selection of the right controller for the application depends on
1. The degree of control required by the application.
2. The individual characteristics of the plants.
3. The desirable performance level including required response, steadystate deviation and stability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d
141. Consider a system described by
x = Ax + Bu
y = Cx + Du
The system is completely output controllable if and only if
(a) The matrix
\left[ CB\vdots CBA\vdots C{ B }^{ 2 }A\vdots \cdots \vdots C{ B }^{ n1 }A\vdots D \right]
is of rank n
(b) The matrix
\left[ CB\vdots CAB\vdots C{ A }^{ 2 }B\vdots \cdots \vdots C{ A }^{ n1 }B\vdots D \right]
is of rank m
(c) The matrix
\left[ BC\vdots BAC\vdots B{ A }^{ 2 }C\vdots \cdots \vdots B{ A }^{ n1 }C\vdots D \right]
is of rank m
(d) The matrix
\left[ BC\vdots ABC\vdots { CA }^{ 2 }B\vdots \cdots \vdots C{ B }^{ n1 }A\vdots D \right]
is of rank n
where:
x = State vector (nvector)
u = Control vector (rvector)
y = Output vector (mvector)
A = n × n matrix
B = n × r matrix
C = m × n matrix
D = m × r matrix

Ans: b
142. Which one of the following symbols is used as the notation for designating arm and body of a robot with jointed arm configuration?
(a) TRL
(b) TLL, LTL, LVL
(c) LLL
(d) TRR, VVR

Ans: d
143. A compliant motion control of robots can be understood by the problem of controlling of
(a) Position and velocity of joints
(b) Position and acceleration of the endeffector
(c) Manipulator motion and its force interactions with the environment
(d) Joint velocities of given endeffector velocity

Ans: c
144. For the vector v = 25i+10j+20k, perform a translation by a distance of 8 in the xdirection, 5 in the ydirection and 0 in the zdirection. The translated vector Hv will be

Ans: b
Directions:
Each of the next six (06) items consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other labelled as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true, but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) false.
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true.
145. Statement (I): The greater the chemical affinity of two metals, the more restricted is their solid solubility and greater is the tendency of formation of compound.
Statement (II): Wider the separation of elements in the periodic table, greater is their chemical affinity.

Ans: a
146. Statement (I): The size of a memory unit is specified in terms of the number of storage locations available; 1 K is 2^{10 }= 1024 locations and thus a 4 K memory has 4096 locations.
Statement (II): Erasable and programmable ROM (EPROM) is a form of memory unit used for ROMs that can be programmed and their contents altered.

Ans: b
147. Statement (I): Microprocessors which have memory and various input/output arrangements, all on the same chip, are called microcontrollers.
Statement (II): The microcontroller is the integration of a microprocessor with RAM , ROM , EPROM, EEPROM and I/O interfaces, and other peripherals such as timers, on single chip.

Ans: a
148. Statement (I): Capacitive proximity sensor can only be used for the detection of metal objects and is best with ferrous metals.
Statement (II): One form of capacitive proximity sensor consists of a single capacitor plate probe with the other plate being formed by the object, which has to be metallic and earthed.

Ans: d
149. Statement (I): SCARA configuration provides substantial rigidity for the robot in the vertical direction, but compliance in the horizontal plane.
Statement (II): A special version of the Cartesian coordinate robot is the SCARA, which has a very high lift capacity as it is designed for high rigidity.

Ans: c
150. Statement (I): The stepper motor is a device that produces rotation through equal angles, the socalled steps, for each digital pulse supplied to its input.
Statement (II): Stepper motors can be used to give controlled rotational steps but cannot give continuous rotation, as a result their applications are limited to step angles only.

Ans: c